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Home > Why doesn't the translation of the genitive in Mark 11:22 use the word of? How is theology used to translate this verse?

Why doesn't the translation of the genitive in Mark 11:22 use the word of? How is theology used to translate this verse?

Daniel B. Wallace

Daniel B. Wallace has taught Greek and New Testament courses on a graduate school level since 1979. He has a Ph.D. from Dallas Theological Seminary, and is currently professor of New Testament Studies at his alma mater. His Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament ... More

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June 23rd 2009


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